Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
15.06.2025 08:46
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
You'll usually find your answer there.
Is visiting holy shrines (dargahs) or graves haraam in Islam?
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Why have Indian girls almost stopped wearing sarees?
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
There's no rule.
Why are white women dating more black guys than ever?
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.